2 ms·
Not necessarily. If one assumes that political affiliation is more or less uniformly distributed within a district—say, 60% party A, 30% party B, and 10% party
by nybble41 8y ago
Not necessarily. If one assumes that political affiliation is more or less uniformly distributed within a district—say, 60% party A, 30% party B, and 10% party C—dividing each district into 10 uniform subdistricts just results in 10 winners from party A and no representation at all for the remaining 40% of the population. This is an issue with winner-take-all districts, regardless of their size. A proportional system would instead select 6 representatives from party A, 3 from party B, and 1 from party C.