4 ms·
No, because the quality of life is not similar. I think the parent of your post implicitly used that quality of life and poverty rates between the two are (rela
by adjkant 8y ago
No, because the quality of life is not similar. I think the parent of your post implicitly used that quality of life and poverty rates between the two are (relatively) comparable.
- mikeash 8y agoHow comparable, exactly? If QoL in California is better in proportion to the workforce disparity then the UK isn’t any more efficient. If it goes the other way then the UK is even more efficient. Assuming they’re the same doesn’t make any sense.
- coldtea 8y agoIf they're more or less the same, then assuming they're the same makes perfect sense.
- mikeash 8y agoThat depends on how close “more or less the same” actually is. Within 10%? Sure. Within an order of magnitude? That would swamp the other difference. I have no idea which way it is, but spinning lower GDP per worker as more efficient doesn’t make any sense to me.
- coldtea 8y ago>spinning lower GDP per worker as more efficient doesn’t make any sense to me Well, the GDP doesn't make any sense either. Busywork also increases the GDP.