I was not comparing slavery to lack of data privacy. The point I was trying to make was that, in the greater scheme of things, there is no requirement for philo

I was not comparing slavery to lack of data privacy. The point I was trying to make was that, in the greater scheme of things, there is no requirement for philosophical or moral motivation to change laws - only a critical mass of people who want the change. In this context, the slavery example wasn't a good one as it is so charged with exactly that. Perhaps drug prohibition laws are a better example in general and Alcohol prohibition in the US in particular: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eighteenth_Amendment_to_the_United_States_Constitution https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eighteenth_Amendment_to_the_Un... With this in mind there is no need for moral justification that one side of a two sided exchange retains exclusivity to information (and given the way personal data is used and abused, I think that there is such justification) , only sufficient public opinion that this is how things should be.