Frequently when I read a comment where Marx is quoted or referenced, I struggle to understand the point. The article discusses a trend that has lasted longer t

Frequently when I read a comment where Marx is quoted or referenced, I struggle to understand the point. The article discusses a trend that has lasted longer than 6 centuries. Are you claiming this is due to 600 years of runaway inequality? How does it make any sense to claim Marx predicted this since he was born more than 400 years later than the start of the trend described in the article?