3 ms·
But Apple doesn't have a significant share of the mobile phone industry - Android (Google) does - with I believe Samsung leading the way. So how can it be monop
by s3r3nity 8y ago
But Apple doesn't have a significant share of the mobile phone industry - Android (Google) does - with I believe Samsung leading the way. So how can it be monopolistic?
The comparisons in other posts is not quite apples - to - apples (no pun intended) because you can't be a monopoly when you're not in a dominant market position.
Lastly, whether or not the examples you mention "benefit" customers today is irrelevant, as you need to consider the possibility that their dominant position would mean that they might not in the future (i.e. customers not acting in their best long-term interest, or companies leveraging their market dominance in the future for non-customer-centric behavior, etc.) Platitudes like "don't be evil" don't persuade me much.
Edit: don't know why folks are down-voting a comment about US anti-trust law.
- dgaaaaaaaaaa 8y agoApple has 60% of market-share in high-end phone market (worldwide, it's higher in US). Oh, it is a major player
- s3r3nity 8y ago"High-end phone market" is a specious market definition, though. When you look at "smartphone market share" or even "smartphone OS market share," it's a top player, sure, but not the dominant one (Android is still multiples of iOS.)
- dingaling 8y agoBut only about 20-25% of the overall market.