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The calls were likely edited. As far as two-party consent, maybe they called businesses outside of California... maybe they got consent after the call. Either w
by bonestamp2 8y ago
The calls were likely edited. As far as two-party consent, maybe they called businesses outside of California... maybe they got consent after the call. Either way, something still seemed weird about the calls.
- mark212 8y agodoesn't matter if the business was outside of California. The California Supreme Court has ruled that if one side of the conversation is in California (e.g., Google calling from Mountain View) then California law applies. See Kearney v. Salomon Smith Barney, Inc., 39 Cal.4th 95 (2006). Consent after the call would be just fine to exempt someone from liability under California's privacy act.
- bonestamp2 8y agoFair enough, maybe the calls originated from outside California. Either way, I think we can see there are some ways to get around the two-party requirement. But, there's still something fishy about the calls.