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Yes, it explicitly mentions it, because it's actually very often true. Of course there are plenty of examples where it would be extremely difficult to link to a
by ealexhudson 8y ago
Yes, it explicitly mentions it, because it's actually very often true. Of course there are plenty of examples where it would be extremely difficult to link to an individual, but there are tonnes of examples where it's extremely easy. GDPR says that because it's sometimes easy, you have to consider it personal data.
Again, it's not always saying an IP address is a personal identify. It just is often enough.
- jasonlotito 8y ago> Again, it's not always saying an IP address is a personal identify. It just is often enough. Well, that's not what you said or implied. I'm just thinking of all the cases in the US were the defense is you can't assume that an IP address ties to a specific person. Anyone could use the computer, or someone could attach to an open wifi. Basically, if the legal argument is the IP address can be associated with a person, that raises legal concerns.
- ealexhudson 8y agoI said they can be used to identify an individual in a moment in time. That's correct. Can it always identify an individual? No. Is the standard of identification good enough for a criminal case? Certainly not. But why are you comparing these? The GDPR is a standard about privacy and data protection; a UK postcode (like a zip code in the US) is considered personal data for exactly the same reason.