It's true that courts can't make laws, but they have shown a lot of leeway in the past of creatively interpreting laws (i.e., using the Interstate Commerce clau

It's true that courts can't make laws, but they have shown a lot of leeway in the past of creatively interpreting laws (i.e., using the Interstate Commerce clause to say a farmer can't raise a particular crop to feed to his own animals). Could existing laws that prevent monopolies from unfair business practices be applied here?