Would they have to wait for the customer to likewise consent -- would their recording not be an implicit consent? Even in the two-party states, I would be surp

Would they have to wait for the customer to likewise consent -- would their recording not be an implicit consent? Even in the two-party states, I would be surprised to find a judge or prosecutor who would allow a claim against a customer recording a call that was also recorded by the company. Even if technically violating the letter of the law. But cases like these have surprised me before.