The have/have-not dichotomy is increasingly becoming a matter of geography, of have vs. have-not regions. A French sociologist whose name I forget has written e

The have/have-not dichotomy is increasingly becoming a matter of geography, of have vs. have-not regions. A French sociologist whose name I forget has written extensively about this, and others claim that the theory applies throughout the industrialized world. If it's true, it answers your question almost by definition.