3 ms·
I remember reading http://andrewgelman.com/2016/11/13/more-on-my-paper-with-john-carlin-on-type-m-and-type-s-errors/ http://andrewgelman.com/2016/11/13/more-on-
by alan-crowe 8y ago
I remember reading http://andrewgelman.com/2016/11/13/more-on-my-paper-with-john-carlin-on-type-m-and-type-s-errors/ http://andrewgelman.com/2016/11/13/more-on-my-paper-with-joh...
with its graph "This is what power = 0.06 looks like". So I got the point that you have to have sufficient statistical power. A useful rule of thumb is that you need a power of at least 0.8. You need to have some idea how big the effect is likely to. Perhaps from previous exploratory research, from claims of other researchers, from reasoning "well, if this is happening the way we think it is, there has to be an effect greater than x waiting to be discovered.". Then you work out how big a sample size you need to use. Then you roll up your sleeves and get down to work.
But the reason for using p values rather than Bayesian inference is that it gets you out of the tricky problem of coming up with a prior. You only need to think about the null hypothesis and ask yourself whether the probability of the data, given the null hypothesis, is less than 0.05.
So there is a bit of contradiction. p values don't really work unless you ensure that you have sufficient power. To do that you need a plausible effect size, to feed into your power calculation. And that is implicitly an rough approximate prior, 50:50 either null or that effect. You could just do a Bayesian update, stating how much you shifted from 50:50.
Basically, if you don't already know enough to have an arguable prior to get a Bayesian approach started, you don't know enough to do a power calculation, so you shouldn't be using p-values either.
I went looking on andrewgelman.com for a reference for wanting power = 0.8 and found a more recent post
http://andrewgelman.com/2017/12/04/80-power-lie/ http://andrewgelman.com/2017/12/04/80-power-lie/
Oh shit! The situation is much worse than I realised :-(
- thousandautumns 8y ago> But the reason for using p values rather than Bayesian inference is that it gets you out of the tricky problem of coming up with a prior. It technically doesn't even do this. Using a frequentist approach is equivalent to a Bayesian approach with an uninformative prior, which is itself an assumption being baked into the analysis, only one that is almost unquestionably incorrect. Its essentially saying you have literally no idea how a data is being generated, which is certainly not true.