4 ms·

Nope ip are personal data by themselves

DanBC 9y ago
No they aren't. They're only personal data if they can be linked to a natural person. Who is 147.67.135.33? Article 4: http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/PDF/?uri=CELEX:32016R0679&from=EN http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/PDF/?uri=CELEX... > 1) ‘personal data’ means any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person (‘data subject’); an identifiable natural person is one who can be identified, directly or indirectly, in particular by reference to an identifier such as a name, an identification number, location data, an online identifier or to one or more factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural or social identity of that natural person;
- LoSboccacc 9y ago
  Keyword: indirect https://privacylawblog.fieldfisher.com/2016/can-a-dynamic-ip-address-constitute-personal-data https://privacylawblog.fieldfisher.com/2016/can-a-dynamic-ip... https://www.jdsupra.com/legalnews/ecj-confirms-dynamic-ip-address-may-23456/ https://www.jdsupra.com/legalnews/ecj-confirms-dynamic-ip-ad... Etc. That’s what the european justice court said last time it was called to determine whether ip were personal information or not. What you gonna do now, downvote the proceedings?
  - DanBC 9y ago
    From the articles that you provided: > an internet service provider ("ISP") has a record of the temporary "dynamic IP address" assigned to a particular user's device (potentially identifiable data); and Here they're not talking about "IP addresses", they're talking about "IP addresses assigned to particular users". > In answering the BGH’s first question, the ECJ confirmed that dynamic IP addresses are considered personal data within the meaning of the Directive in circumstances where the data collector (e.g., a website operator) is likely or reasonably able to obtain information from a third party that would allow it to identify the user. This clearly says that an IP address by itself is not personal information. It only becomes personal information when you can identify a natural person - when you link it with other data.
    - LoSboccacc 9y ago
      > when you link it with other data. > reasonably able it clearly states 'legal means' to identify the user. a subpoena is a perfectly reasonable and legal way to disclose an identity from an ip and doesn't require access to any other personal data, merely that such a link from ip to identity exists. the link is the "third party information to identify the user". it's not that you correlate an ip with a cookie or other technical means. you have to get out of the engineering mindset.

No they aren't. They're only personal data if they can be linked to a natural person. Who is 147.67.135.33? Article 4: http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/PDF/?uri=CELEX:32016R0679&from=EN http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/PDF/?uri=CELEX... > 1) ‘personal data’ means any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person (‘data subject’); an identifiable natural person is one who can be identified, directly or indirectly, in particular by reference to an identifier such as a name, an identification number, location data, an online identifier or to one or more factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural or social identity of that natural person;

LoSboccacc 9y ago
Keyword: indirect https://privacylawblog.fieldfisher.com/2016/can-a-dynamic-ip-address-constitute-personal-data https://privacylawblog.fieldfisher.com/2016/can-a-dynamic-ip... https://www.jdsupra.com/legalnews/ecj-confirms-dynamic-ip-address-may-23456/ https://www.jdsupra.com/legalnews/ecj-confirms-dynamic-ip-ad... Etc. That’s what the european justice court said last time it was called to determine whether ip were personal information or not. What you gonna do now, downvote the proceedings?
- DanBC 9y ago
  From the articles that you provided: > an internet service provider ("ISP") has a record of the temporary "dynamic IP address" assigned to a particular user's device (potentially identifiable data); and Here they're not talking about "IP addresses", they're talking about "IP addresses assigned to particular users". > In answering the BGH’s first question, the ECJ confirmed that dynamic IP addresses are considered personal data within the meaning of the Directive in circumstances where the data collector (e.g., a website operator) is likely or reasonably able to obtain information from a third party that would allow it to identify the user. This clearly says that an IP address by itself is not personal information. It only becomes personal information when you can identify a natural person - when you link it with other data.
  - LoSboccacc 9y ago
    > when you link it with other data. > reasonably able it clearly states 'legal means' to identify the user. a subpoena is a perfectly reasonable and legal way to disclose an identity from an ip and doesn't require access to any other personal data, merely that such a link from ip to identity exists. the link is the "third party information to identify the user". it's not that you correlate an ip with a cookie or other technical means. you have to get out of the engineering mindset.