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The easement is at the very least implied by law. Consider the case where person A owns property that has no access except by crossing person B's property. Ther
by sidlls 9y ago
The easement is at the very least implied by law. Consider the case where person A owns property that has no access except by crossing person B's property. There is an easement granting person A the right to cross B's property whether B agrees or not and whether or not it's recorded in the public records, etc. This is similar, although I suspect he'll try to argue alternative access exists or some other nonsense.
- killjoywashere 9y agoAs I recall, he has also argued that there was some sort of treaty that pre-dated the California Constitution. None of it makes sense, he's just decided this is a fight he wants to fight.