What I find confusing here is that (as someone with zero legal background), I would have thought that if the user has a contract with the Irish subsidiary, that

What I find confusing here is that (as someone with zero legal background), I would have thought that if the user has a contract with the Irish subsidiary, that Facebook shouldn’t be able to make a change like this without getting a renewed consent from the user. I know that companies change and update their ToS all the time and maybe there’s nothing different here, but in this case it particularly sticks out to me. Even if Facebook or any company “reserves the right to change their terms of service at any time”, why does this not shred the notion that a user has informed consent?