So your position is that pilosophy is "western culture" and not science: In the second case I would expect it to be unifiable across cultural boundries even a

So your position is that pilosophy is "western culture" and not science: In the second case I would expect it to be unifiable across cultural boundries even a posteriori - like for example mathematics, just to show a different disclipine with western/greek name. And in the first case if philosophy IS culture - then it is not unifiable of course...