3 ms·

Um, what about those gambling companies which operated quite legally from Europe, yet whose executives were basically kidnapped by US authorities and tried for

Um, what about those gambling companies which operated quite legally from Europe, yet whose executives were basically kidnapped by US authorities and tried for violating US law. Apparently US laws governs the whole world, but everyone else's laws are only local?

hga 16y ago
"basically kidnapped"??? More like "foolishly placed themselves in the jurisdiction of a country who's laws they were breaking". They had two choices if they wanted to avoid this: don't accept money from US citizens residing in the US or keep themselves out the reach of US law by staying outside of the US. And do you really think the US has no legitimate interests in what non-citizens do with US citizens in other countries?
- tomjen3 16y ago
  >And do you really think the US has no legitimate interests in what non-citizens do with US citizens in other countries? I would say they don't, since it happens on another states soil.
  - hga 16y ago
    To take an extreme example, if a non-citizen kills an American on foreign soil, America has no interest in the matter? I'm not implying they have the primary interest, just trying to ascertain if you think they have no legitimate interest. ADDED: To take one iconic example, "Perdicaris alive or Raisuli dead"....
mturmon 16y ago
Remember, it's perfectly legal to be arrested in the country whose laws you've broken. In fact, it's also legal for a third-party country to arrest you, as in the case of Augusto Pinochet, the Chilean dictator: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augusto_Pinochet%27s_arrest_and_trial http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augusto_Pinochet%27s_arrest_and... The US was nothing to do with this affair. The crimes were committed in Chile, the judge who indicted him was Spanish, and Pinochet was arrested in London. (He was eventually released to Chile, but the reason was declining health, not lack of jurisdiction.) So it would seem in this case that Spanish law was trying to govern the whole of Europe?

hga 16y ago

"basically kidnapped"??? More like "foolishly placed themselves in the jurisdiction of a country who's laws they were breaking". They had two choices if they wanted to avoid this: don't accept money from US citizens residing in the US or keep themselves out the reach of US law by staying outside of the US. And do you really think the US has no legitimate interests in what non-citizens do with US citizens in other countries?

tomjen3 16y ago
>And do you really think the US has no legitimate interests in what non-citizens do with US citizens in other countries? I would say they don't, since it happens on another states soil.
- hga 16y ago
  To take an extreme example, if a non-citizen kills an American on foreign soil, America has no interest in the matter? I'm not implying they have the primary interest, just trying to ascertain if you think they have no legitimate interest. ADDED: To take one iconic example, "Perdicaris alive or Raisuli dead"....

mturmon 16y ago

Remember, it's perfectly legal to be arrested in the country whose laws you've broken. In fact, it's also legal for a third-party country to arrest you, as in the case of Augusto Pinochet, the Chilean dictator: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augusto_Pinochet%27s_arrest_and_trial http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augusto_Pinochet%27s_arrest_and... The US was nothing to do with this affair. The crimes were committed in Chile, the judge who indicted him was Spanish, and Pinochet was arrested in London. (He was eventually released to Chile, but the reason was declining health, not lack of jurisdiction.) So it would seem in this case that Spanish law was trying to govern the whole of Europe?