Where did he mention tax avoidance? My interpretation of the parent is he’s saying many violations of securities laws are otherwise harmless. Nobody needs to be

Where did he mention tax avoidance? My interpretation of the parent is he’s saying many violations of securities laws are otherwise harmless. Nobody needs to be defrauded for a violation to occur. All parties on both sides of an investment could willingly consent to take part, and everyone involved could be happy, yet the SEC or CFTC could still punish everyone. I’m not arguing in favor of either side with this comment, just looking to clear up some apparent confusion on what the parent comment stated.