Are you claiming that in an unregulated market, because of wash trading, it can become generally known that an asset is mispriced such that the mispricing is ar

Are you claiming that in an unregulated market, because of wash trading, it can become generally known that an asset is mispriced such that the mispricing is arbitrarily high? It seems to me that the market efficiency of unregulated markets depends on many things and your claim is too strong.