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It raises interesting question. What if some publisher, say, newspaper, can show highly targeted ads for $3 CPM, or generic ads for $1 CPM. Can such publisher
by nopriorarrests 9y ago
It raises interesting question. What if some publisher, say, newspaper, can show highly targeted ads for $3 CPM, or generic ads for $1 CPM.
Can such publisher claim that collecting data is strictly necessary to provide the service? With threefold difference in ad revenue, that could be actually the case.
- molf 9y agoGood question. This would be an appeal to "legitimate interest" as a legal basis for collecting personal data. GDPR explicitly states that if the legitimate interest is direct marketing, then the user may always object to such processing, and this right must be clearly indicated. [1] https://gdpr-info.eu/art-21-gdpr/ https://gdpr-info.eu/art-21-gdpr/
- x0x0 9y agoI do wonder if you can charge a consent price and a non-consent price, or if that would be fundamentally equivalent to not providing the service?
- friendzis 9y agoIANAL, but most probably not. When thinking about "strictly necessary to provide the service", one should think in terms of technical feasibility, as in "can the service be technically provided without that data?" not in terms of profitability.