2 ms·
I'm not sure what you're trying to do. Do you want to have a sincere discussion or do you want to just debate semantics and pull out exceptions? Do those worke
by noobermin 9y ago
I'm not sure what you're trying to do. Do you want to have a sincere discussion or do you want to just debate semantics and pull out exceptions?
Do those workers have say in their economic situation? Can they change the direction of their company without losing their jobs? Do they have economic and political power?
Stop equating stock ownership in a fund as if it is "owning the means of production." You know that it is a mere extension of the word "own" and it probably doesn't refer to what Marx talked about, so stop trying to twist definitions and thinking it counts as sincere argument.
- ericd 9y agoOwning part of a fund is equivalent to owning part of their holdings, which includes owning the means of production owned by those companies in which they hold shares. I don't agree that it's semantics to point out that the divide between "owners" and "workers" is not at all clean in the US.