2 ms·
And the silly thing is that the rule was based on Latin, where to infinitive is marked by a (non-separable) suffix, as opposed to English where it's marked by a
by _emacsomancer_ 9y ago
And the silly thing is that the rule was based on Latin, where to infinitive is marked by a (non-separable) suffix, as opposed to English where it's marked by a preposed preposition "to" (though that may be redundantly put).