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Sure. In most of the Western world, Universal Suffrage came only after World War 1. Till then there were generally barriers of class, race or gender on who coul
by sfifs 9y ago
Sure. In most of the Western world, Universal Suffrage came only after World War 1. Till then there were generally barriers of class, race or gender on who could vote.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_suffrage https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_suffrage
- Houshalter 9y agoThat's not "rule by the rich". The middle class and even much of the poor still voted. You just had to own land, which isn't exactly a high barrier. The point was voting should be one vote per household, by the head of the family.