You’re implying that by moving international profits to a Caribbean country means Apple has avoided corporate tax? Like laundering money? This is not the case

You’re implying that by moving international profits to a Caribbean country means Apple has avoided corporate tax? Like laundering money? This is not the case - they park their international profits in the Caribbean because US tax code allows them to keep profits offshore and only pay tax when they bring the profits onshore. If Ireland was facilitating corporate tax avoidance by an American country, why is the US supporting Ireland in the Apple case in the ECJ? Does this not suggest that there is more complexity to this situations than the hyperbolic headlines?