I dunno if that's what OP meant or not, but either way I'd note the actual malice standard only applies to public officials and public figures, which is defined

I dunno if that's what OP meant or not, but either way I'd note the actual malice standard only applies to public officials and public figures, which is defined fairly narrowly. I certainly don't think that qualifies as a decision that "the news media can lie". In fact, to the extent you can prove the news media was lying in a report about a public figure (that is, the news media published something they knew to be false), that's explicitly covered. That's the opposite of what OP claimed.