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> Just to be clear, the Indo European migration is presumed to be a trade/culture migration Not the case. You're making the "pots, not people" case, which anci
by quotemstr 9y ago
> Just to be clear, the Indo European migration is presumed to be a trade/culture migration
Not the case. You're making the "pots, not people" case, which ancient DNA evidence has thoroughly debunked. Changes in material culture usually do indicate large-scale population movements. Yamnaya remains from the Caucuses, for example, are genetically almost identical to the ones buried in the Corded Ware culture that spread through Europe ~5000 years before present. The Yamnaya, a steppe people, completely overran Europe, and today, contribute just over 50% of the ancestry of Western European populations and who spread Indo-European languages there and elsewhere.
The idea that prehistory was full of peace, love, and gradual and voluntary cultural change is ridiculous and indefensible, especially in light of modern genetic evidence, but also on the grounds of common sense.
Why wouldn't you expect to see large scale folk migrations? We have historical records of large-scale movements (e.g., Germanic tribes from Tacitus), and one would expect similar movements, of even greater scope and intensity, to have occurred in prehistory. This kind of movement was the norm, not the exception, in prehistory.
Post-1970s thought in this area seriously annoys me. It presumes a gradual, peaceful transition everywhere at all times despite stark evidence to the contrary. Read Ward-Perkins for a good rant on how fellow historians believe, against all historical and archaeological evidence, that Rome never fell. He's as frustrated and baffled by this thinking as I am.
- _emacsomancer_ 9y agoThough, at the same time, some of the overly racialised interpretations of the 19th-century have been shown to be rather off track. There was a picture painted of pale-skinned Sanskrit speakers sweeping into India on chariots and dominating and slaughtering dark-skinned Dravidians (and others). That does not seem well supported. The Indo-Aryan speakers certainly were warlike, but the battles narrated in the Rgveda involved Indo-Aryans on both sides, allied with non-Indo-Aryan speakers on both sides; as well as people with overtly non-Indo-Aryan names sponsoring rituals in the Rgveda. (None of this goes against your primary point. And certainly we know of plenty of militaristic invasions of India in more recent times, including the Mughals.)
- telotortium 9y agoAn interview of Ward-Perkins, to get a flavor of his critique: http://www.bu.edu/historic/hs/perkins.pdf http://www.bu.edu/historic/hs/perkins.pdf
- drb91 9y ago> Changes in material culture usually do indicate large-scale population movements. I wasn’t trying to contradict this, rather that the any genetic migration correlated with a culture/language migration would have likely trailed significantly speed wise and should be demonstrated, not assumed. I am certainly not arguing for a lack of conflict :)