If you've read it in depth, did the paper look at causality at all? There is evidence that poverty causes a drop in intelligence (http://www.independent.co.uk/

If you've read it in depth, did the paper look at causality at all? There is evidence that poverty causes a drop in intelligence (http://www.independent.co.uk/news/science/poverty-intelligence-aging-brain-low-income-inequality-a7333506.html http://www.independent.co.uk/news/science/poverty-intelligen...) If this is the case then a correlation between intelligence and wealth is not necessarily indicating that intelligence causes wealth.