Wealth inequality seems a meaningless measure to apply in retrospect to societies which had no material wealth. Even if these groups were materially egalitarian

Wealth inequality seems a meaningless measure to apply in retrospect to societies which had no material wealth. Even if these groups were materially egalitarian (i.e. everyone is poor by modern standards), I doubt that there was real equality. The fact that some men would have reproduced with multiple women while others did not reproduce at all is an example of this.