3 ms·
Huh? It's most assuredly post-modernist because it implicitly assumes that all categories are equal in value (i.e.: that no category is better than another),
by omginternets 9y ago
Huh?
It's most assuredly post-modernist because it implicitly assumes that all categories are equal in value (i.e.: that no category is better than another), and that the decision is at it's core a power-struggle (i.e.: oppressive to the loser).
This is, again, a tired and fruitless approach.