4 ms·
Why would it be rational for them to behave the same way?
by muro 9y ago
Why would it be rational for them to behave the same way?
- OscarCunningham 9y agoBecause each of their actions have exactly the same consequences.
- coldtea 9y agoSo A enters the casino with $100 and B enters the casino with $50 -- he then proceeds to double them, whereas A remains steady. So, now both have $100, and B plays with just the house money. A is losing money they had put aside -- B is losing money he didn't have to begin with. E.g. A might be playing with borrowed mafia money, or his kids college fund (and risks losing them), whereas B doesn't risk going anywhere below where he was when he entered the casino. If anything, he has a chance to make his winnings even bigger (or at worse, lose them). In real life (as opposed to thought experiments treating those persons like abstract entities) the origin of those money has a story, so the A=B=100 state is not all that matters to determine the consequences.
- OscarCunningham 9y agoSure. By altering external factors we can make the agents do whatever we want. Perhaps the fact that B only brought $50 indicates his frugal nature, and suggests that he also has a better financial situation outside the casino.
- coldtea 9y ago>Sure. By altering external factors we can make the agents do whatever we want. You say it as it's some kind of cheating -- instead of enriching the in vitro abstract example with real world impact, and showing why its abstract conclusions don't apply to the real world.