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>Studies which include the complete value of benefits in their calculation of wages and use the same method to deflate both wages and productivity show that the
by frgtpsswrdlame 9y ago
>Studies which include the complete value of benefits in their calculation of wages and use the same method to deflate both wages and productivity show that there is no "wage decoupling" from productivity.
Do you have an example?
- ancap 9y agohttps://files.stlouisfed.org/files/htdocs/publications/es/07/ES0707.pdf https://files.stlouisfed.org/files/htdocs/publications/es/07... http://www.nber.org/papers/w13953.pdf http://www.nber.org/papers/w13953.pdf http://cep.lse.ac.uk/pubs/download/dp1246.pdf http://cep.lse.ac.uk/pubs/download/dp1246.pdf The last one they muddy the waters quite a big where they talk about a "net decoupling" and "gross decoupling". The first they use the same deflator and the second they use a different deflator. Using different deflators for wages and productivity means you're comparing apples to oranges. Economists Donald Boudreaux and Liya Plagashvili discuss the topic in greater detail in this WSG op-ed https://www.wsj.com/articles/donald-boudreaux-and-liya-palagashvili-the-myth-of-the-great-wages-decoupling-1394151793 https://www.wsj.com/articles/donald-boudreaux-and-liya-palag...
- frgtpsswrdlame 9y agoCool, thanks for the follow up!