5 ms·
>"We excluded quasi-randomised trials and trials that were incomplete or included 20% or more of participants with bipolar disorder, psychotic depression, or tr
by harbie 9y ago
>"We excluded quasi-randomised trials and trials that were incomplete or included 20% or more of participants with bipolar disorder, psychotic depression, or treatment-resistant depression."
Wikipedia defines treatment resistant depression as "cases of major depressive disorder that do not respond adequately to appropriate courses of at least two antidepressants."
Maybe I'm unfamiliar with study methodology, but doesn't this undermine the study's conclusion? It's essentially stating that forms of deppresesion that respond well to antidepressants respond well to antidepressants.
- deleted 9y ago[deleted]
- tyu100 9y agoSSRIs are generally indicated for what's called mild/moderate depression, the most common form, not for the serious conditions that you highlighted. There were some older meta-studies that called into question their general efficacy vs. placebo even for mild/moderate depression but this new meta-study (with the additional previously unpublished data from their initial approval trials) looks like it has finally settled the matter. Reading this paper I'm amazed at the increased efficacy of some of the newer SSRI's despite not having a novel mechanism of action. This is similar to how effective some of the newer statins are at lowering LDL cholesterol despite the drug class being around for decades. edit: It looks like I'm a bit out-of-date in my knowledge but the general point still stands. DSM V has a definition of 'major depressive disorder' which seems to have replaced the old mild/moderate categorization and this study looked at all anti-depressants that treat this type of depression, not just SSRIs.
- kqr 9y ago> Reading this paper I'm amazed at the increased efficacy of some of the newer SSRI's despite not having a novel mechanism of action. There are huge differences in the mechanism of action, quantitatively speaking, even within a class of antidepressants. As a particularly striking example, you're allowed to call your drug an SNRI as long as it has any detectable N effect at all -- even if the N effect is too small to practically make any sort of difference, and the drug is practically an SSRI. Don't remember well enough to cite exactly but this may have been it: https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11920-013-0370-7 https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11920-013-0370-7?
- icantdrive55 9y agoI am obviously confused, as usual. I'm not used to reading these studies. I'm looking at the study. I'm looking at the #3 graph under Tables and Functions Tab. It says amitriptyline is the best drug? Isn't that an older drug, or am I misreading the chart?
- kqr 9y ago"Best" is a complicated concept. Yes, amitriptyline has the greatest efficacy, i.e. response rate in a clinical setting. It may still have poor effectiveness (how well it works in the real world) because it belongs to a class of medications which, if you use them, you have to exclude many types of common foods from your diet. It also has less safety margins in terms of overdosing than many modern alternatives. And then there's also the odd fact that earlier trials of antidepressants show better effect than recent ones -- even for the same treatment and all else held equal. We don't know why.
- alex_hitchins 9y agoWhat foods should I avoid? I'm been taking Amitriptaline for 8 years now for pain management and wasn't given any advise on substances to avoid. Although I'm on another Anti-Depressant, I certainly notices a positive effect from Amitriptaline that outweigh the bad effects.
- mnw21cam 9y agoBasically, the foods you need to avoid are any that might cause constipation, because Amitriptyline kind of does that for you already. The parent post was possibly confusing Amitriptyline with a different drug. It is very weird to be mixing two different antidepressants. Depending on what your other antidepressant is, it could be dangerous. Were your two medications prescribed by the same doctor, and if not, have the two doctors talked to each other? A very simplistic view is that some antidepressants cause the body to make more serotonin, and others prevent the body from destroying serotonin as quickly. Doing one is fine, but doing both at the same time can lead to serotonin syndrome. Amitriptyline does have higher risk from overdose than SSRIs, but has much gentler withdrawal symptoms.
- nerfhammer 9y agotreatment-resistant doesn't mean severe, it means treatment resistant.
- alz 9y agoRight! They exclude cases where they don’t work, then conclude ‘All antidepressants were more efficacious than placebo’. This is highly misleading