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Sure it does. If X is the cost of running the country, including schooling, roads, public transportation, etc, and the rich pay a higher portion of their incom
by OpieCunningham 16y ago
Sure it does.
If X is the cost of running the country, including schooling, roads, public transportation, etc, and the rich pay a higher portion of their income into X, the poor need pay a lower portion of their income into X in order to have the same level of access as if rich and poor paid the same portion of their income.