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"I'm simply stating that the distribution of preferences and abilities of men and women differ in part due to biological causes and that these differences may e
by openasocket 9y ago
"I'm simply stating that the distribution of preferences and abilities of men and women differ in part due to biological causes and that these differences may explain why we don't see equal representation of women in tech and leadership." I'm not sure how to interpret that as not sexist. Prefacing it with "Note, I’m not saying that all men differ from women in the following ways or that these differences are 'just.'" doesn't really help.
- weberc2 9y agoWhile I can see how that statement could be abused to sexist ends, nothing about it is sexist nor prescribes any sort of discriminatory treatment. Note that it doesn't imply or conclude that a given female applicant is less qualified than a given male candidate nor that the pipeline of female applicants is less qualified in aggregate than the pipeline of male applicants (because there's no reason to assume that the pipeline has the same distribution as the overall population). It merely suggests that (assuming pertinent biological causes) we shouldn't expect a fair process to result in parity of outcomes. Whether or not there are pertinent biological causes is a question I leave to scientists, but I do want to note that (contrary to Damore's critics), science has established biological sex differences that may be pertinent, and lots of scientists have validated Damore's position (that biological differences may explain some of the gender distribution in tech). https://www.psychologytoday.com/articles/201711/the-truth-about-sex-differences?collection=1107987 https://www.psychologytoday.com/articles/201711/the-truth-ab...