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“Under Japanese rule,” “at the time, North Korea was a part of Japan”... Even during the lawful occupations of Japan and Germany, those countries are not refer
by jonathanyc 9y ago
“Under Japanese rule,” “at the time, North Korea was a part of Japan”...
Even during the lawful occupations of Japan and Germany, those countries are not referred to as “part of America” or “under British rule.”
Why the euphemism for Japan’s horrific and moreover unlawful occupation of Korea?
- jccooper 9y agoPerhaps because Japan officially and intentionally annexed Korea during that time, where American occupations were explicitly only occupations?