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I read up some more, and I see that I've over simplified it. I like your description better. I think I must have been assuming a situation along the lines of "
by usefulcat 9y ago
I read up some more, and I see that I've over simplified it. I like your description better.
I think I must have been assuming a situation along the lines of "bank loans out 90% of its deposits, and then all those debts are moved to other institutions", in which case I expect the bank would be left with 10% of its original deposits plus the loan agreements, the total value of the latter being equal to ~9x the value of the remaining deposits.
- kgwgk 9y agoThat description seems correct, if the bank has $100 in deposits (which are a liability for the bank, it owes that money to depositors) on the asset side it will have loans for $90 (the money owned to the bank) and the remaining $10 will be the reserves.