3 ms·
So you narrowly redefine theft to not include intellectual property or any non-physical good. IANAL - but I don't think this would fly in any jurisdiction anyw
by analognoise 9y ago
So you narrowly redefine theft to not include intellectual property or any non-physical good.
IANAL - but I don't think this would fly in any jurisdiction anywhere. Is this definition specific to a country whose laws I'm not familiar with?
- dragonwriter 9y ago> So you narrowly redefine theft to not include intellectual property or any non-physical good. Theft in law generally only applies to tangible personal property, not intangible personally property and not real property. That's not a redefinition, just the long-existigng definition.
- analognoise 9y agoDid you plug "intellectual property theft" into Google before you came to this conclusion?
- prepend 9y agoTry it and look at laws vs non-laws.
- asfdsfggtfd 9y agoNo I apply the actual definition of theft.... I never said that copyright infringement or copying and publishing personal data is OK morally or legally. I just said that they are different crimes.
- deleted 9y ago[deleted]