25 ms·
Historically this was to ensure that rural areas had equivalent representation to urban centers. Agricultural areas, for example, might have very different opin
by framebit 9y ago
Historically this was to ensure that rural areas had equivalent representation to urban centers. Agricultural areas, for example, might have very different opinions about tariffs on foreign products because it would effect their livelihoods in a significant way whereas the city dwellers probably wouldn't notice too much.
Our lives and our industries are tied to the land we live on. It's not just rural and urban: there's coastal and landlocked, desert and forest, tropical and arctic, etc. Each of these areas have unique concerns when it comes to policies that effect their land and the industries that their land lends itself to.
- deleted 9y ago[deleted]
- goialoq 9y agoNot equivalent, but superior representation. Rural minorities outvote urban majorities due to the bias in the electoral college / Senate model.