> Is there a particular standard...? Well in this case, the legislator literally admitted to gerrymandering. See the opinion: Rather than seeking to advan

> Is there a particular standard...? Well in this case, the legislator literally admitted to gerrymandering. See the opinion: Rather than seeking to advance any democratic or constitutional interest, the state legislator responsible for drawing the 2016 Plan said he drew the map to advantage Republican candidates because he “think[s] electing Republicans is better than electing Democrats.” Ex. 1016, at 34:21–23. But that is not a choice the Constitution allows legislative mapdrawers to make. I don't think there's an easy way prove gerrymandering. The only antidote is to require serious (and audit-able) bipartisan cooperation when re-drawing districts.