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> That is an odd claim to make because Sanskrit was not a language of day to day speech. This is what many folk in Universities want us to believe, but having
by throwaway312331 9y ago
> That is an odd claim to make because Sanskrit was not a language of day to day speech.
This is what many folk in Universities want us to believe, but having seen day-to-day language used and taught, I don't think it is, or was ever true. Apparently even the devadasis knew it extremely well back in the day, much as did people from many other 'backward' 'castes'.
It's almost as if a school of people want the tradition dead, because its staying alive is too... erm... worrying ? Lots of complicated power structures hang in the balance, as India's tortuously chooses between its past and the past its master want it to have / have had.
- srean 9y ago> ... or was ever true This needs a reputable citation. What an anonymous user personally thinks about it is hardly relevant. By the way, knowing a language is very different from use in day to day speech.
- throwaway312331 9y ago> This needs a reputable citation. What an anonymous user personally thinks about it is hardly relevant. Fair enough. Here's the interview with Shatavadhani R. Ganesh from where I get my tidbits. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0xQ2EkrXBy4&list=PL54675312C28EC143 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0xQ2EkrXBy4&list=PL54675312C... > By the way, knowing a language is very different from use in day to day speech. I know the difference. Have you ever visited Sanskrit universities/gurukulas in India ? It's simply magical. Sanskrit is taught in the language itself, and students chat with their teachers and amongst themselves in the language. This made me very happy! This is even acknowledged on various Indology mailing lists, where the western scholars note this, often rather bitterly, often peppering the immediately following sentence with generic insults and racist disdain. Apologies for getting political here, but I've never understood why the field is so hostile to India (British origins ?). East Asia departments by comparison are filled with Sinophiles/Japanophiles.
- srean 9y agoThanks for the video, where is the claim that Sanskrit was a language for day to day speech made. A paper makes it easier than a video. > I know the difference. Have you ever visited Sanskrit universities/gurukulas in India ? A personal magical experience has little to do with the fact in contention here -- was Sanskrit a language for day to day conversation among the commons. Very little in your comment speaks to that claim, nothing in fact, except may be some part of the video. Whether Sanskrit can be picked up as a spoken language by motivated people is not the point of contention. I can point you to many communities that speak in a language that was never used as a language of day to day speech by the commons. On whether I have visited a Sanskrit university -- Does having a close family member as a Prof in Sanskrit count ?
- throwaway312331 9y ago> A paper makes it easier than a video. Alas, most traditional scholars don't really bother writing papers (atleast, not in English AFAIK). > Very little in your comment speaks to that claim, nothing in fact, except may be some part of the video. You're correct. I don't work in the field, but a quick Google search threw this up. https://books.google.co.jp/books?id=NDrqaELkKTEC&pg=PA38&lpg=PA38&dq=sanskrit+spoken+language&source=bl&ots=K0h2W_mrSF&sig=GDHIcV_bPEaRlL36vw-mFf_2lUE&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiYh4ua_sfYAhWCk5QKHZvXDbo4ChDoAQhSMAc#v=onepage&q=sanskrit%20spoken%20language&f=false https://books.google.co.jp/books?id=NDrqaELkKTEC&pg=PA38&lpg... I'm sure if one were inclined, one could find more material. > Whether Sanskrit can be picked up as a spoken language by motivated people is not the point of contention. I can point you to many communities that speak in a language that was never used as a language of day to day speech by the commons. Fair enough. That said, what kind of evidence would 'prove' the said proposition ? Is there evidence to the contrary which would fit this standard ? Latin for instance, may not have been spoken in its classical form, but the vulgar form is believed to have been widely spoken. Similarly, if someone were given freedom to ontologically ground my words (say, 'common' == '> 1e4, of various diversities'; 'sanskrit' == 'paninian grammar'), merely to prove me wrong, the game is not worth playing (which circles back to my first point).
- 9y ago