5 ms·

I realise I'm arguing against a work of comedy, but: > But not all of them are populated; therefore only a finite number are. There are infinities of differen

• b3lvedere 9y ago
  Of course. Of course. You are totally right. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=23I5GS4JiDg https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=23I5GS4JiDg
• SideburnsOfDoom 9y ago
  My understanding is that the infinity of "all integers greater than zero" and of "all integers greater than zero and divisible by 2" are in fact infinities of the _same_ size. The same would apply for "divisible by 100" or "divisible by 1 million". This would apply to the fraction of worlds that are populated, whatever fraction of them are.
  • zimpenfish 9y ago
    As best I understand it, all those reduce to aleph-zero because they're countably infinite and can be mapped to the natural numbers. But aleph-one exists and is provably bigger than aleph-zero despite both being infinite. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aleph_number https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aleph_number http://www.alephzero.co.uk/what.htm http://www.alephzero.co.uk/what.htm