4 ms·
I don't know if he's really worth responding to, but it really depends on your definition of 'homogeneous'. Historically, the US was certainly much more homogen
by Amezarak 9y ago
I don't know if he's really worth responding to, but it really depends on your definition of 'homogeneous'. Historically, the US was certainly much more homogeneous in the past.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_racial_and_ethnic_demographics_of_the_United_States#Historical_data_for_all_races_and_for_Hispanic_origin_(1610%E2%80%932010) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_racial_and_ethnic_d...
You mention Chinese labor, for example, but the Asian presence in the US was below 1% until 1980. There were only three demographics that really existed in any numbers in US history up until the past few decades: Native Americans (mostly genocided or blended with other categories, and not counted as part of the population until this happened), whites (80-90% until 1980s), and the black people who were mostly either slaves or descended from slaves (fluctuated between 10 and 20%). Since the 1980s, the Hispanic population has seen a massive upsurge, with Asians also increased as a proportion of the population by almost 5x, and "Other" going from basically 0% to 6%.
This is not exactly a diverse picture, even if it isn't 100% homogeneous.