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> In the postwar era, developed economies have experienced two substantial trends in the net capital share of aggregate income: a rise during the last several d
by acover 9y ago
> In the postwar era, developed economies have experienced two substantial trends in the net capital share of aggregate income: a rise during the last several decades, which is well-known, and a fall of comparable magnitude that continued until the
1970s, which is less well-known. Overall, the net capital share has increased since 1948, but when disaggregated this increase comes entirely from the housing sector: the contribution to net capital income from all other sectors has been zero or slightly negative, as the fall and rise have offset each other. [0]
That doesn't mean that the gains for capital since the 70s are from housing. Only that the gains from the 40s are. It also doesn't address the industrial revolution's affect.
[0] - http://mattrognlie.com/brookings_capitalshare.pdf http://mattrognlie.com/brookings_capitalshare.pdf
- rajnathani 9y agoIt’s clearly the case for since the 70s as well. In an interview, Nobel prize-winning economist Joseph Stiglitz (who served under Bill Clinton) criticized Piketty [0] of overemphasizing the increase in concentration of wealth, and this was on the basis that the current increase in wealth stems from an increase in land value. [0] https://www.salon.com/2015/01/02/joseph_stiglitz_thomas_piketty_gets_income_inequality_wrong_partner/ https://www.salon.com/2015/01/02/joseph_stiglitz_thomas_pike...