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1. You accuse me of being disingenuous. Yet the purpose of my comment was to challenge the assumption that someone is guilty because they settle. Whether a pers
by cgmg 9y ago
1. You accuse me of being disingenuous. Yet the purpose of my comment was to challenge the assumption that someone is guilty because they settle. Whether a person is poor or not makes no difference to that point. Please tell me why you think I was being disingenuous.
2. If I'm interpreting your comment correctly, you're claiming that anyone who is (a) wealthy and (b) settles to avoid further legal costs is automatically guilty. Is this correct?
- ric2b 9y ago> Whether a person is poor or not makes no difference to that point. It absolutely does, though. A poor person can't get a crack team of lawyers to defend them, they get an overworked public lawyer that doesn't have the time to make a decent defense, so it's very risky for that person to go to trial, even if they're completely innocent. For an entity like Goldman it's the other way around, you only settle if you know you're guilty beyond reasonable doubt, because you can otherwise afford great, dedicated lawyers working full time for years on your case. No, this doesn't mean that you're automatically guilty if you're wealthy and settle, but the two situations are far _far_ from being equivalent.