4 ms·
Isn't this just the pigeonhole problem in reverse? The four toy group kids played with individual toys longer perhaps because there were fewer toys to play with
by bdamm 9y ago
Isn't this just the pigeonhole problem in reverse? The four toy group kids played with individual toys longer perhaps because there were fewer toys to play with. So... why would we be surprised with this result? Also, how does it lead to the conclusion that this allows "better focus to explore and play more creatively"? I'm not willing to pay the $40 to find out, did anyone do so and can provide the magical answer for why the authors believe their result shows anything about creativity or attention?
- timthelion 9y agohttp://sci-hub.bz/http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0163638317301613 http://sci-hub.bz/http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/artic...
- bunderbunder 9y agoNot quite. With 4 toys, kids could still switch toys just as frequently as with 16 toys. They would just be expected to return to a toy after setting it down in ~1/5 as much time under one possible null hypothesis. No, it's not a big bang result. That is a good thing. For a long time, psychology has had a real problem with studies whose reach exceed their grasp. This study appears to me to be an example of exactly the kind of sober, incrementalist work that we need to see more of in psychology. It takes a big hypothesis ("giving kids a lot of toys is harmful to their attention span in the long run"), picks a smaller sub-hypothesis off of it ("if kids have fewer toys, their individual sessions with each toy will be longer") and then tests just that bit. Like they suggest at the end of the abstract, this result indicates that it would be sensible to proceed to the next iteration. Call it "lean science" if a buzzword is necessary.
- dopamean 9y ago> "if kids have fewer toys, their individual sessions with each toy will be longer" I must be missing something. Isn't this obvious? One hour of play time / 16 toys is less time per toy then one hour of play time / 4 toys.
- bunderbunder 9y agoThey're not counting total time spent with each toy. They're counting the length of each instance of playing with a toy. So if the kid plays with toy A for 1 minute, then toy B for 1 minute, then toy A for 1 minute again, then toy B for 1 minute again, the number of interest for each toy is 1, not 2.
- swsieber 9y agoNo, that's not obvious. I would expect if the number of toys didn't have an impact on creativity or attention span, the following: "Kids switch toys just as often, not matter how many toys they have" And I would expect that because children have limited attention spans - they want to switch after x time. Yes, the cumulative play time per toy is obvious, but the individual sessions getting longer isn't very obvious. The result implies, at the very least, that the kids plan out how much to play with each toy based on how many toys there are
- taejo 9y agoWhat requires that they play with all the toys in an hour? A kid with 16 toys can play with each of them for 30 minutes at a time; a kid with 4 toys can play with each of them for 15 minutes at a time. "Length of session" != "total play time divided by number of toys"
- Double_a_92 9y agoBtw all the toys were new to them. So probably they just spend a few minutes with each to try it out. You're quicker if you only have to try 4 and pick one.
- 2muchcoffeeman 9y agoMaybe not. They could have switched toys just as frequently with 4 as with 16 toys. Accumulated time would be the longer, but not each session. But I’m not going to pay to find out what they actually did.
- lhorie 9y agoIt's still hyperbolic to assume that two data points (4 and 16 toys) extrapolate to a linear correlation though. The results could just as well support a hypothesis that the correlation with toy engagement is a bell curve peaking somewhere between 4 and 16.
- bunderbunder 9y agoThey used a Wilcoxon test, so there really wasn't any assumption of linearity.
- lhorie 9y agoFrom the paper: > The hypothesis that fewer toys in children’s environments would improve the quality of play, measured by three variables, was supported. But given they only conducted a paired difference test for 4 toys and 16 toys, they can only conclude that there's a statistically significant difference between 4 and 16 toys. This is very different than saying fewer toys correlate to any result, because when one says "fewer toys correlate to X", it implies that the correlation stands for any two numbers of toys, and that's not what the study looked at.
- bunderbunder 9y agoSure. But if we're going to go that far down the path of pedantry, why not get to the even deeper problem with that statement, which is that, strictly speaking, your alternative hypothesis is never supported; you can only fail to reject the null hypothesis.
- lhorie 9y agoI don't think it's that pedantic a point. IMHO, I agree this study is incremental and thus too preliminary to draw generalizing conclusions on. Even the paper itself acknowledges a number of major aspects that further research should focus on. But consider that threads here are already drawing parallels to Montessori education, personal anecdotes, etc. People are used to big bang results and will happily draw conclusions that aligns with their world view even if the wording in a paper isn't exactly what a scientific study actually means to say.