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>I did some quick research and have found no evidence that creating districts is a legally binding action. He ought to do more research, then, because in 1967
by Armisael16 9y ago
>I did some quick research and have found no evidence that creating districts is a legally binding action.
He ought to do more research, then, because in 1967 Congress put this in the US Code:
>In each State entitled in the Ninety-first Congress or in any subsequent Congress thereafter to more than one Representative under an apportionment made pursuant to the provisions of section 2a(a) of this title, there shall be established by law a number of districts equal to the number of Representatives to which such State is so entitled, and Representatives shall be elected only from districts so established, no district to elect more than one Representative (except that a State which is entitled to more than one Representative and which has in all previous elections elected its Representatives at Large may elect its Representatives at Large to the Ninety-first Congress).
- ChicagoDave 9y agoI should amend my posting. There is no constitutional requirement for districts. Remove that one law and states could enact alternate voting methods.