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How can something be a crime if there are no victims?
by chiliap2 9y ago
How can something be a crime if there are no victims?
- kamaal 9y agoIts something like this. Say a person burnt his house, the house is razed to ashes. There is nobody killed, nobody injured or let's say nobody was even present at home. The house was insured, but the owner doesn't claim insurance either. Despite all this. No insurance scam and no harm to anybody. But still the guy setting fire to his own home will considered a arsonist.
- dmd 9y agoNot true. Arson requires malicious intent / lack of consent.
- el_benhameen 9y agoIf I slam on my brakes while driving on the freeway, throw my car into reverse, and manage to get home without hitting anyone, I’ve still broken the law. I think we want to sanction dangerous behavior regardless of outcome. That Shkreli didn’t lose his investors’ money is luck and should have nothing to do with his punishment for doing something that could well have lost people money.
- jack9 9y agoCrime (criminal liability) is violation of statute. Civil liability is based on harm caused. It's been this way for a long time.
- cgmg 9y agoIt's unfortunate that questions which invite clarification and education are constantly downvoted on HN.