You keep bringing up Gresham's Law but I think you're neglecting the fact that it only holds in the long term when the bad money and the good money have the sam

You keep bringing up Gresham's Law but I think you're neglecting the fact that it only holds in the long term when the bad money and the good money have the same face value. If they have a floating exchange rate, the good money will drive the value of the bad money towards 0. Edit: perhaps read the section of the Wikipedia article entitled "reverse of Gresham's law". It argues exactly the point I'm arguing.