Is it still a fallacy if the baker never had the money or intention to buy a suit and borrowed or withdrew from savings the money to fix the window? Cute anima

Is it still a fallacy if the baker never had the money or intention to buy a suit and borrowed or withdrew from savings the money to fix the window? Cute animation aside, the fallacy only holds up as long as we assume all income immediately becomes debit. A cursory glance at society and business demonstrates that is not the case.