3 ms·
I doubt that it's that simple. For tax rules, it's likely more about the notion of when the employee has the effective right to it. If the employee has the ri
by ddlatham 9y ago
I doubt that it's that simple. For tax rules, it's likely more about the notion of when the employee has the effective right to it. If the employee has the right to it, via being able to write a letter requesting it, then it's already vested from the perspective of the IRS, regardless of what word games you play.
- ransom1538 9y ago[deleted]
- wbl 9y agoYou are looking for something like a Rabbi trust.
- deleted 9y ago[deleted]
- jeffdavis 9y agoI think the law has language about how it's vested unless a substantial amount of additional work required of the employee (e.g. continued employment). It's like if a company receives a bill for something they bought in 2016, but don't technically pay it until 2017, the bill would still show up in their 2016 reports.
- cbr 9y agoif a company receives a bill for something they bought in 2016, but don't technically pay it until 2017, the bill would still show up in their 2016 reports. Yes if you're using accrual basis, but not if you're using cash basis: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basis_of_accounting https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basis_of_accounting (Any big company will be using accrual basis, though.)