So essentially we set damages at t0 currency value of the milkshake, plus interest over N years. Seems reasonable. If milkshakes were illiquid, and could only

So essentially we set damages at t0 currency value of the milkshake, plus interest over N years. Seems reasonable. If milkshakes were illiquid, and could only be bought and sold every N years, that would seem to peg damages to asset value instead of currency value. Or am I wrong?